No idea. It's much too late for either the First Dynasty in Egypt or the beginning of the world according to the Hebrew calendar. This also sent me to checking the date that English common law used to define "time immemorial, or time whereof the memory of man runneth not to the contrary," 1189 A.D.
I am amused, not that English law had such a date, but that it was phrased that way, not "1189 AD" or "before the reign of Richard 1." (Wikipedia tells me that in the last couple of centuries, it's more likely to be either X years before whatever event the lawyers are arguing about," and that this is a piece of English common law that the US mostly didn't inherit.
![[personal profile]](https://www.dreamwidth.org/img/silk/identity/user.png)
branchandroot
no subject
Date: 2025-06-01 07:45 pm (UTC)I am amused, not that English law had such a date, but that it was phrased that way, not "1189 AD" or "before the reign of Richard 1." (Wikipedia tells me that in the last couple of centuries, it's more likely to be either X years before whatever event the lawyers are arguing about," and that this is a piece of English common law that the US mostly didn't inherit.